2013 September UGC NET Solved Question Paper in Tourism Administration and Management Paper 3

 


1. Assertion (A): The Tourism Emergency Response Network (TERN) is managed by the UNWTO as a leading tourism association of the world.

Reason (R): The TERN does not work under the Risk and Crisis Management (RCM) section of the UNWTO.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

Answer: (C)

 

2. This consists of names and by names of countries, regions and places. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:

List – I                                    List – II

i. ABC Islands                                    1. African Caribbean, Pacific state (under LOME convention)

ii. ACP States                         2. Belgium, Holland, Luxembourg

iii. Low Countries                   3. Denmark, Finland, Iceland, Norway, Sweden

iv. Nordic Countries               4. Aruba, Bonaire, Curacao

Codes:

       i ii iii iv

(A) 1 3 4 2

(B) 3 4 1 2

(C) 4 1 2 3

(D) 3 2 4 1

Answer: (C)

 

3. In which year the daily air service was launched from London to Paris?

(A) 1947

(B) 1919

(C) 1939

(D) 1957

Answer: (B)

 

4. Which of the following are not to be regarded as tourists according to the recommendations of the World Tourism Organisation?

(A) Diplomats travelling between their country of origin and duty station.

(B) Cruise passengers

(C) Pilgrims

(D) Visiting friends and relatives

Answer: (A)

 

5. The term “Common Interest Tourism” describes

(A) Group travel by people with the same interests

(B) Group visits between “twinned” towns only

(C) A synonym for visits to friends and relatives

(D) Visits with a purpose significantly shared by the visitor and the visited

Answer: (D)

 

6. The Serengeti National park is located in which country?

(A) Zimbabwe

(B) Ethiopia

(C) Tanzania

(D) South Africa

Answer: (C)

 

7. The term “Incentive Tourism” denotes

(A) A travel rewarded with commissions

(B) Travel that has been paid for by a firm as a reward to employees

(C) Travel stimulated by inducements

(D) Travel using vouchers to cover spending enroute

Answer: (B)

 

8. Assertion (A): The Statute of Liberty is situated on Bedloc Island in New York (USA) and made by Gustavo Eiffel, the builder of Eiffel Tower.

Reason (R): It is exact replica of statute situated on the bank of river Seine in Paris.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (D)

 

9. The longest high speed rail route recently launched by China runs between

(A) Beijing and Guangzhon

(B) Beijing and Mongolia

(C) Beijing and Tibet

(D) Beijing and Leningrad

Answer: (A)

 

10. Assertion (A): One of the most popular beaches in Goa Calangute is a treat for the adventure sports freak.

Reason (R): Foreigners throng the beaches.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

11. The submarine museum which is the first of its kind in South Asia is situated in

(A) Hyderabad

(B) Vijayawada

(C) Visakhapattanam

(D) Bhimunipattanam

Answer: (C)

 

12. On which famous beach in India, where one can see the statues of Avvaiyar, Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose and Mahatma Gandhi among others?

(A) Radhanagar beach

(B) Ramakrishna beach

(C) Marina beach

(D) Anjuna beach

Answer: (C)

 

13. This consists of two lists – types of position and their respective duties. The candidate has to match the position with the function in the other:

List – I (Position)                                            List – II (Duties)

i. Lobby Manager                                            1. Guest folio

ii. Front Office Cashier                                   2. Management representative

iii. Concierge                                                   3. Left luggage

iv. Bell desk                                                    4. Box office tickets

Codes:

       i ii iii iv

(A) 1 3 2 4

(B) 2 4 3 1

(C) 3 2 1 2

(D) 2 1 4 3

Answer: (D)

 

14. Global Distribution System (GDS) is a network of providers that bring product and services, geographically spread across the world, to the door step of the consumers anywhere in the world. Which one of the following is not belonging to GDS:

(A) Sabre Computer System

(B) Amadeus Computer System

(C) Galileo Central Reservation System

(D) World Space Reservation System

Answer: (B)

 

15. “Quad” room in a hotel is

(A) a room with a seating parlour and a bed.

(B) a room for four people fitted with twin beds and two rollaway beds.

(C) Two rooms one serving as a living cum dining area and the other with a double bed.

(D) two rooms with an interconnecting door, ideal for a family.

Answer: (B)

 

16. “Down town hotels” are located at the

(A) Precincts of an airportwww.netugc.com

(B) Natural or manmade sites

(C) Outskirts of a city

(D) Centre of the city in busy commercial and shopping districts

Answer: (D)

 

17. “Kitchen stewarding” is a department concerned with

(A) preparation and service of sandwiches, fruit platters, juices and shakes.

(B) preparation and service of cakes and pastries.

(C) storage, maintenance, cleanliness and issue of crockery, cutlery, holloware, Chinaware and glassware to restaurants and kitchens.

(D) preparation of tea, coffee and malted hot beverages for various food and beverage outlets

Answer: (C)

 

18. “Condominiums” or “Condor” are a type of accommodation that

(A) provide services to the bare minimum.

(B) owner permit the management to rent out an apartment at other times and rent goes to the owner.

(C) provide an extra set of rooms to let out to tourists.

(D) owned by several people who will schedule their visit well in advance with the management office to ensure that the room is available.

Answer: (D)

 

19. ‘Motels’ are

(A) Rooms especially equipped for therapy

(B) Mobile homes that families take across the country

(C) Fully automated hotels which require minimum human contact

(D) Traditional lodges in Europe for the Christian pilgrims to Jerusalem

Answer: (C)

 

20. Total number of International Airports under the Airports Authority of India is

(A) 7

(B) 10

(C) 12

(D) 14

Answer: (B)

21. The first Rajdhani Express between Howrah and New Delhi started in the year

(A) 1948

(B) 1958

(C) 1969

(D) 1979

Answer: (C)

 

22. Tata Airlines was renamed as Air India in the year

(A) 1932

(B) 1948

(C) 1950

(D) 1953

Answer: (B)

 

23. When did Thomas Cook first started the Grand circular Tours of Europe?

(A) 1955

(B) 1956

(C) 1966

(D) 1967

Answer: (B)

 

24. Which one is not an attractive element for tour operators while designing organized package tour?

(A) Flexibility of adding special services for premium price

(B) Consolidation of business network for effective service delivery

(C) Penetration in the market by reducing price

(D) Promotion of hassle free travel

Answer: (C)

 

25. Value for Money pricing strategy for organised package tour intended to charge

(A) Medium price

(B) High price

(C) Low price

(D) Premium price

Answer: (A)

 

26. Which pricing strategy/approach that SOTC has adopted for the promotion of In-box holiday package?

(A) Premium pricing

(B) Under-cut pricing

(C) Cost-plus pricing

(D) Skimmed the cream pricing

Answer: (B)

 

27. Which one of the pricing strategy that most of the low cost airlines adopted in the recent time?

(A) Cost-based pricing

(B) Psychological pricing

(C) Competition oriented pricing

(D) Buyer-based pricing

Answer: (D)

 

28. The wholesale tour operator use the yield management for one of the following:

(A) Lowering the price to meet expected demand

(B) Increasing the price to meet expected demand

(C) Maximizing the productivity

(D) Maximizing the customer’s expectations

Answer: (A)

 

29. Which one is not a true function of a wholesale tour operator?

(A) It assembles the services to be sold in a single price tag.

(B) It directly provides ground services at all the places.

(C) It makes a direct deal with all principle service providers.

(D) It takes care of International transport and departure.

Answer: (B)

 

30. Which one of the following is a function of a travel agent?

(A) It acts as a ground operator.

(B) It retails the package tour.

(C) It deals with foreign exchange.

(D) It is accountable to the cancellation of tour.

Answer: (B)

 

31. Assertion (A): Ecological approach is time consuming but sustainable for meeting the need of present and future.

Reason (R): An ecological approach to tourism planning emphasizes on the need for local control over the development process in satisfying local needs.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

 

32. Candidate has to match an item in List-I with an item in the List-II:

List – I (Rural Tourism Sites)                                     List – II (State)

i. Khultabad – Sulibhanjan                                         1. Gujarat

ii. Kumbalangi                                                             2. Kerala

iii. Hodka                                                                    3. Karnataka

iv. Banavasi                                                                 4. Maharashtra

Codes:

       i ii iii iv

(A) 4 2 1 3

(B) 4 3 2 1

(C) 3 2 1 4

(D) 2 3 4 1

Answer: (A)

 

33. This consist of two lists of books and authors and the candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:

List – I Books                                                             List – II Authors

i. Tourism: A Community Approach                          1. Hall C.M.

ii. Tourism Planning & Policy                         2. Murphy

iii. Tourism Planning                                                   3. Dredge D. and Jenkins J.

iv. Tourism Destinations                                             4. Davidson, R. and Maitland, R.

Codes:

       i ii iii iv

(A) 2 3 1 4

(B) 1 2 3 4

(C) 3 4 1 2

(D) 4 3 2 1

Answer: (A)

 

34. According to Getz and Hall, which one of the following is not a part of the Five approaches of tourismplanning at the destination level?

(A) Boosterism

(B) An economic, industry-oriented approach

(C) A cultural approach

(D) A sustainable approach

Answer: (C)

 

35. Assertion (A): The National Tourism policy of 2002 is meant for informing hygiene, protecting the environment and building infrastructure.

Reason (R): It has certain negative impacts due to lack of well defined policy and planning approach.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (R) is true, but (A) is false.

Answer: (A)

 

36. Assertion (A): Policy and planning are complementary to each other in laying a solid foundation of tourism development in any country.

Reason (R): Tourism planning is formulated for pro-poor tourism and pro-people tourism.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

Answer: (B)

 

37. The process of monitoring performance, comparing it with goals and correcting any significant deviations is known as

(A) Organizing

(B) Planning

(C) Controlling

(D) Leading

Answer: (C)

 

38. Large scale action plans of an organisation for interacting with environment in order to achieve long-term goals refers to

(A) Actions

(B) Objectives

(C) Strategic goals

(D) Strategies

Answer: (D)

 

39. Adam Smith in his book ‘Wealth of Nations’ described the breakdown of jobs into narrow and repetitive tasks and called this

(A) Work denomination

(B) Assembly lines

(C) Division of labour

(D) Common factor of work

Answer: (C)

 

40. The Hawthorne studies were initially devised to study

(A) productivity levels of groups Versus individuals.

(B) the effect of noise on employee productivity.

(C) the effect of illumination levels on employee productivity.

(D) the effect of co-operative versus competitive organisational environments on productivity.

Answer: (C)

 

41. Spans of Management control create structures with different levels of management

(A) Narrow, Flat

(B) Wide, Unpredictable

(C) Narrow, Tall

(D) Wide, Tall

Answer: (C)

 

42. Data when organised in a meaningful way, the results are called

(A) A database

(B) Information

(C) Artificial intelligence

(D) An expert system

Answer: (B)

 

43. Match an item in List-I with an item in List-II:

List – I (Books Name)                                                            List – II (Author)www.netugc.com

i. Principles of Scientific Management                       1. Maslow

ii. General & Industrial Management                         2. Henry Fayol

iii. Motivation & Personality                                       3. Peter Drucker

iv. The Practice of Management                                 4. F.W. Taylor

Codes:

       i ii iii iv

(A) 4 2 1 3

(B) 3 1 2 4

(C) 2 3 1 4

(D) 1 4 2 3

Answer: (A)

 

44. A positive Net Present Value (NPV) means

(i) The project earns rate of return higher than the firm’s cost of capital.

(ii) The project’s rate of return is equal to the firm’s cost of capital.

(iii) The firm’s cost of capital is more than the project’s rate of return.

(iv) The firm’s cost of capital is equal to annual revenue from project.

The candidate has to find the correct answer using the code:

Codes:

(A) (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct.

(B) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(C) (i) and (iii) are correct.

(D) (i) is correct.

Answer: (D)

 

45. Which of the following belongs to BOTH money and capital market?

(A) Treasury bills

(B) Commercial banks

(C) Stock Market

(D) Derivative market

Answer: (B)

 

46. Which of the following is not an example of money market?

(A) Commercial bills market

(B) Debt market

(C) Call-money market

(D) Treasury bills

Answer: (B)

 

47. Financial leverage is calculated as

(A)  Percentage change in EBIT Percentage change in sales

(B) Percentage change in EPS Perentage change in EBIT

(C) Percentage change in EPS Percentage change in Sales

(D) Percentage change in EBIT Percentae change in EPS

Answer: (B)

 

48. Experimental type of research is carried out when

(i) the problem clarity is very high.

(ii) the problem clarity is comparatively moderate.

(iii) the casual relationships between variables are investigated rigorously.

(iv) the problem clarity is low.

The candidate has to find the correct answer using the code:

Codes:

(A) (i) and (ii) are correct.

(B) (i) and (iii) are correct.

(C) (iii) and (iv) are correct.

(D) (i) and (iv) are correct.

Answer: (A)

 

49. The research problem can never be classified as

(A) Simple and complex

(B) Well defined and ill-defined

(C) Tame and wicked

(D) Soft system and creative

Answer: (D)

 

50. Portfolio of products that an organisation offers to one market or several is known as

(A) Product life cycle

(B) Positioning mix

(C) Product mix

(D) Brandicide

Answer: (C)

 

51. _______ advertising is important for mature products because it keeps consumer thinking about product.

(A) Informative

(B) Persuasive

(C) Image

(D) Reminder

Answer: (D)

 

52. This consist of two lists, List – I represents the message execution strategy and the List – II represents the essence of execution strategy. The candidate has to match an item in List – I with an item in List – II:

List – I                                                List – II

i. Slice of life                                       1. Creates characters speak on behalf of the product to build credibility

ii. Fantasy                                            2. People using the product in normal setting

iii. Mood or Image                              3. Creates a wonder-world around the product or its use

iv. Testimonial evidence                     4. Communicates the essence or spirit of the product

Codes:

       i ii iii iv

(A) 3 4 1 2

(B) 1 2 3 4

(C) 2 3 4 1

(D) 4 1 2 3

Answer: (C)

 

53. This consists of two lists, List – I represent Tourism marketing environmental forces and the List – II represents the element through which the marketer must understand these forces. The candidate has to match an item in one list with an item in the other:

List – I                                                                        List – II

i. Demographic                                                            1. Pressure groups

ii. Political                                                                   2. Institution and Society’s behaviour

iii. Cultural                                                                  3. Integrity of Resources

iv. Environmental                                                        4. Physical traits of Individuals

Codes:

       i ii iii iv

(A) 2 4 3 1

(B) 4 1 2 3

(C) 3 2 1 4

(D) 1 3 4 2

Answer: (B)

 

54. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?

(A) Consumer buying behaviour refers to the buying behaviour of                                       – Final Customers

(B) The groups to which people do not belong but would like to be the part of that group  – Aspirational Group

(C) The technique used by marketer to identify the relationship between perceived importance of a destination on the part of tourist and actual performance on the part of the suppliers                                                                                                                                  – Perceptual Mapping

(D) Brand or part of brand that gives legal protection and also gives the seller the exclusive right to use the brand name or brand mark is                                                                         – Brand Equity

Answer: (D)

 

55. VALS framework divides the US population into different lifestyle groups, defined according to Psychological factors that correlate with

(A) Purchase behaviour

(B) Social class

(C) Family life cycle

(D) Culture

Answer: (A)

 

56. ______ is the tendency to twist information into personal meaning and interpret information in a way that fit our preconceptions.

(A) Selective attention

(B) Selective retention

(C) Selective distortion

(D) Selective hearing

Answer: (C)

 

57. Which of the following is not an internal factor but influences pricing decisions?

(A) Competition

(B) Marketing objective

(C) Cost

(D) Marketing mix strategy

Answer: (A)

 

58. Arrange the following in chronological sequence:

(A) Madras Museum, Madras Memorial Hall, Madras Egmore Maternity Hospital, Victoria Public Hall

(B) Madras Memorial Hall, Madras Museum, Madras Egmore Maternity Hospital, Victoria Public Hall

(C) Madras Egmore Maternity Hospital, Madras Memorial Hall, Madras Museum, Victoria Public Hall

(D) Victoria Public Hall, Madras Egmore Maternity Hospital, Madras Museum, Madras Memorial Hall

Answer: (C)

 

59. Assertion (A): ‘The Pushkar Fair’ has now become a “must see” on the itinerary of every tourist.

Reason (R): It plays host to them biggest camel fair in Asia.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct, (R) is the correct explanation.

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation.

(C) (A) is correct, but (R) is false.

(D) (R) is correct, but (A) is false.

Answer: (B)

 

60. Two of the greatest travellers in the world have been Marco polo and Ibn Batuta. Name the countries to which they belong?

(A) Greece and Rome

(B) Iran and Turkey

(C) Italy and Morocco

(D) Egypt and Mesopotamia

Answer: (C)

 

61. Which currency is used to buy a ticket to visit the Terra Cotta Army?

(A) Bhat the currency of Thailandwww.netugc.com

(B) Dollar the currency of Hong Kong

(C) Yen the currency of Japan

(D) Renminbi the currency of China

Answer: (D)

 

62. “Vivek Express” the train with longest route plies between the two destinations

(A) Guwahati and Kanyakumari

(B) Dibrugarh town and Kanyakumari

(C) Howrah and Kanyakumari

(D) Kalka and Kanyakumari

Answer: (B)

 

63. Name the capital of Lakshadweep

(A) Amini

(B) Kiltan

(C) Minicoy

(D) Kavaratti

Answer: (D)

 

64. The name “Silk route” which is also a part of cultural tourism, was given by

(A) Marcopolo

(B) Alberuni

(C) Ferdinand-von-Richthofen

(D) Niccolas Manncci

Answer: (C)

 

65. The concept of “Charbagh” was brought to India by

(A) Aryans

(B) Turks

(C) Mughals

(D) Britishers

Answer: (C)

 

66. The architectural concept of “double dome” was introduced in India by

(A) Khaljis

(B) Tughlaqs

(C) Turks

(D) Mughals

Answer: (C)

 

67. One of the prominent sites of Sufism was the Dargah of Chishti Sufi Shaikh Gesudaraz is situated at

(A) Ajmer

(B) Delhi

(C) Multan

(D) Gulbarga

Answer: (D)

 

68. There are four types of International Tourism organisations. Identify the correct order in which they were established

(A) ICAO, PATA, IATA, UFTAA

(B) ICAO, IATA, PATA, UFTAA

(C) IATA, ICAO, PATA, UFTAA

(D) UFTAA, ICAO, PATA, IATA

Answer: (B)

 

69. Mosi-oa-Tunya is a spectacular tourist spot. Select the English name of the spot

(A) Niagara Falls

(B) Abbey Falls

(C) Jog Falls

(D) Victoria Falls

Answer: (D)

 

70. Identify the following literary works in chronological order:

(A) Kadambari, Mudrarakshasa, Panchatantra, Indica

(B) Mudrarakshasa, Indica, Kadambari, Panchatantra

(C) Indica, Mudrarakshasa, Panchatantra, Kadambari

(D) Panchatantra, Indica, Kadambari, Mudrarakshasa

 

Read the passage below and answer the questions from 71 to 75:

The term “ecotourism” originally was used to label a form of Philosophy of tourism that emphasized the need to develop tourism in a manner that minimizes environmental impact and ensures that host communities gain the greatest economic and cultural benefits possible. The central guiding principle is that tourism should be blended with, or assimilated into the environment and the local culture of an area. Tourism should evolve from the area’s natural and historical/cultural attractions. Ecotourism is associated with local ownership and management of all services, including the conservation of resources. It involves travel to sensitive natural and cultural environments. Compared with other travellers, ecotourists tend to be wealthier, college educated and willing to spend large amount of money of extended trips.

Answer: (C)

 

71. The passage clearly indicates the following:

Identify the most appropriate answer

(A) Ecotourism is a form of tourism that focuses on environmental and cultural preservations.

(B) High desire for sustainability of the natural attractions and the native people of the region.

(C) Attraction of natural environment.

(D) Conservation of resources.

Answer: (B)

 

72. Most of the ecotourism sites in India are managed by

(A) Trust

(B) Society

(C) Council

(D) NGO

Answer: (B)

 

73. The seed of ecotourism was planted within the environmental movement in the world in

(A) 1950’s

(B) 1960’s

(C) 1970’s

(D) 1980’s

Answer: (B)

 

74. The basic philosophy of ecotourism is

(A) Tourism needs to be developed in a manner that fits within the natural and cultural environment of a region.

(B) By paying special attention to the needs of the tourists.

(C) The carrying capacity of an environment or host community may be increased or decreased.

(D) Taking steps to promote and protect tourist attractions will create a legacy for future generations.

Answer: (A)

 

75. Assertion (A): Visitors to natural attractions often increase their awareness of nature’s fragile condition and provide funds for its preservation through admission and user fees.

Reason (R): Many of the world’s precious historical and cultural sites have survived because of visitors willing to pay to view treasures of the past.

Codes:

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).

(C) (A) is true and (R) is false.

(D) (A) is false and (R) is true.

Answer: (A)

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