1. Match List – I with list – II and indicate your answer with the help of given codes:
List – I List – II
(Type of Love) (Explanation)
p. Eros 1. A type of unselfish love characterised by devotion to the welfare of others
q. Agape 2. A type of love that incorporates all other types of love
r. Authentic love 3. A type of procreative love that is savouring and experiential
s. Philia 4. Brotherly love
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 1 3 2
(D) 2 4 1 3
Answer: (A)
2. Out of the following who has not explained intelligence in terms of Psychometric Approach?
(A) Jensen
(B) Cattell
(C) Sternberg
(D) Thurstone
Answer: (C)
3. Select one of the levels and one of the stages given below as envisaged by Kohlberg in the theory of development of moral reasoning:
1. Two levels
4. Five stages
2. Three levels
5. Six stages
3. Four levels
6. Eight stages
Codes:
(A) 1 and 5
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2 and 6
(D) 3 and 6www.netugc.com
Answer: (C)
4. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer with the help of the given codes:
List – I List – II
(Styles) (Descriptions)
p. Impulsive cognitive style 1. Responding slowly, carefully and accurately
q. Reflective cognitive style 2. Memorizing but not understanding the learning material
r. Deep processing learning style 3. Responding quickly but often inaccurately
s. Surface processing learning style 4. Understanding the underlying concepts and meaning of learning material
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 1 4 2
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 4 3 2 1
Answer: (B)
5. Which of the following is NOT a factor for poor academic performance among low socioeconomic status students?
(A) Resistance culture
(B) Tracking
(C) Learned Helplessness
(D) Family size
Answer: (D)
6. What are the attitudes, goals and strategies of Failure Avoiding Students?
(A) High fear of failure, very high or very low goals and self-defeating strategies.
(B) Expectations of failure, very high or very low goals and self-defeating strategies.
(C) High fear of failure, very high or very low goals and learned helplessness.
(D) High fear of failure, no goals, learned helplessness
Answer: (A)
7. Hunger is caused by
I. Expectation of food
II. Deficiency of energy
III. Homeostatic disturbance
IV. Deficiency of Oxygen
Codes:
(A) I
(B) I, II
(C) I, II, III
(D) I, II, III, IV
Answer: (C)
8. Arrange the developmental stages of language given by Vygotsky in correct sequence, given below:
1. Potential concept stage
2. Vague syncretic stage
3. Mature concept stage
4. Complex stage
Codes:
(A) 3, 1, 4, 2
(B) 2, 4, 1, 3
(C) 1, 3, 2, 4
(D) 4, 2, 3, 1
Answer: (B)
9. Read the below given statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Labour Unions act collectively to protect employee’s interests.
Reason (R): Labour Unions have little influence on employee competence.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (C)
10. A person while intrinsically motivated does not seek ____ when performing, choose the correct code:
1. Enjoyment
2. Reward
3. Challenge
4. Avoidance of punishment
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 3 and 4
Answer: (C)
11. I imagine becoming a renowned painter someday. I am engaging in
(A) Divergent Thinking
(B) Prospective Thinking
(C) Creative Thinking
(D) Autistic Thinking
Answer: (D)
12. The known stimulus elicits the ______ while the unknown stimulus elicits the _______.
(A) Operant Behaviour; respondent behaviour
(B) Operant Behaviour; Conditioned behaviour
(C) Conditioned Behaviour; Operant Behaviour
(D) Respondent Behaviour; Operant Behaviour
Answer: (D)
13. Match List – I and List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – IIwww.netugc.com
(Kind of effect of stress) (Effects)
p. Physiological effects 1. Reduced work performance
q. Emotional effects 2. Expansion of air passages in lungs
r. Cognitive effects 3. Feeling of anxiety
s. Behavioural effects 4. Increased distractibility
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 4 3 1 2
(C) 3 4 2 1
(D) 1 2 4 3
Answer: (A)
14. Escape learning involves
(A) Instrumental conditioning with positive reinforcement
(B) Classical conditioning with positive reinforcement
(C) Classical conditioning with negative reinforcement
(D) Instrumental conditioning with negative reinforcement
Answer: (D)
15. Given below are two statements are labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the code given below:
Assertion (A): Subliminal or below threshold perception exerts an observable influence on various response parameters is not a controversial question.
Reason (R): Subliminally presented emotional stimuli activate cortical areas that mediate emotional experiences.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (D)
16. Which are the concepts mainly used by Sternberg in his theory of intelligence?
1. Meta components
2. Performance components
3. Factor Analysis
4. Selective encoding
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Answer: (C)
17. Given below are two statements, the first labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Total variance of testscore is the sum of TrueVariance and Error Variance.
Reason (R): True score and error score are independent of each other.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
18. While evaluating the personnel selection programme, job performance was found to have a multiple correlation of 0.6 with the four predictors in the selection test battery. This means that the four predictors explain
(A) 36% variance in job performance
(B) 40% variance in job performance
(C) 60% variance in job performance
(D) 64% variance in job performance
Answer: (A)
19. The standardized regression coefficient (β) in bivariate regression indicates
(A) Change in Y scores when X scores change by 1.
(B) Change in Y scores when X scores change by one SD.
(C) Change in Z-scores of Y when X scores change by 1.
(D) Change in Z-scores of Y when X scores change by 1 SD.
Answer: (D)
20. In a single group pretest-posttest design, which one of the following statistical method can be best employed to evaluate the mean differences of pre and posttests?
(A) Mann-Whitney U test
(B) Randomized ANOVA
(C) Chi-Square
(D) Repeated measures ANOVA
Answer: (D)
21. Ideas interfering with the correct solution of a problem fade during this stage of creative thinking. This stage is
(A) Evaluation
(B) Revision
(C) Illumination
(D) Incubation
Answer: (D)
22. Which of the following strategies do not help improve memory?
(A) Use of Mnemonics
(B) Minimize interference
(C) Mass learning
(D) Elaborative rehearsal
Answer: (C)
23. Explicit or Declarative memory consist of which of the following types of memories?
1. Procedural memory
2. Episodic memory
3. Semantic memory
4. Autobiographical memory
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 4
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 4
Answer: (C)
24. Given below are the two statements, the first labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R).
Indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): We can process information very quickly and perform complex tasks quickly and accurately.
Reason (R): Brain processes information in a serial fashion.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
25. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer with the help of given code:
List – I List – II
p. Converting information from temporary to more permanent memory and spatial memory 1. Temporal lobes
q. Working memory 2. Hippo campus
r. Semantic memory 3. Neurofibrillarytangles
s. Alzheimer’s Disease 4. Frontal lobes
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 2 4 1 3
(B) 1 2 3 4
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 4 2
Answer: (A)
26. Which of the following parts of the brain are related to the recognition of the facial expression of emotions?
Choose the correct code.
1. Hypothalamus
2. Prefrontal Cortex
3. Amygdala
4. Hippocampus
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (B)
27. Which of the following is most appropriate for the assessment of Self-Actualization?
(A) Myers-Briggs Type Indicator
(B) Personal Orientation Inventory
(C) Rosenberg Self-Esteem Inventory
(D) Edwards Personal Preference Scale
Answer: (B)
28. There is a gradual acceleration of responses just before the provision of reinforcement in a fixed interval schedule. This acceleration is referred to as
(A) The Fixed – Interval Gradient
(B) The Fixed – Interval Variant
(C) The Fixed – Interval Caper
(D) The Fixed – Interval Scallop
Answer: (D)
29. When the individual attributes failure to the beliefs that everyone would fail in solving the problem and that the failure results from external causes, the state is described as
(A) Personal helplessness
(B) Hopelessness
(C) Learned optimism
(D) Universal helplessness
Answer: (D)
30. Read the following two statements Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Our facial expressions influence our emotional experience.
Reason (R): We can exert complete voluntary control over our facial muscles during emotional expressions.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
31. The mental representation of what one wants to say comprises the
(A) Surface – phrase structure
(B) Central phrase structure
(C) Primary – Phrase structure
(D) Deep – Phrase structurewww.netugc.com
Answer: (D)
32. The law of Pragnanz or law of good figure refers to
(A) Tendency to read an ambiguous stimulus in accordance with an expectation.
(B) Viewing under suboptimal conditions such as an object is shaded or overlapped.
(C) The tendency to perceive the simplest and most stable figure of all possible perceptual alternatives.
(D) The ability to recognise and identify common objects.
Answer: (C)
33. What behaviour can be emitted is basically
(A) A psychotherapist determined phenomenon
(B) A reward determined capacity
(C) A species-typical capacity
(D) A procedure determined phenomenon
Answer: (C)
34. Memory can be distorted by being influenced by the individual’s expectations rather than what has actually happened. This is termed as
(A) Mood dependent memory
(B) Mood congruence effect
(C) Flash bulb memory
(D) Confirmation bias
Answer: (D)
35. Read each of the following two statements – Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Psychometric and cognitive (Information Processing) approaches to study intelligence are complimentary to each other.
Reason (R): Psychometric theories deal with intelligence primarily in its structural aspects, cognitive theories deal with it primarily in its processing aspects.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (A)
36. Which one of the following is a cause of permanent lesion?
(A) Cryogenic Blockade
(B) Radio-Frequency
(C) Electrical stimulation
(D) Transcranial magnetic stimulation
Answer: (C)
37. Some Psychologist stated that the relationship between intelligence and creativity is not the same throughout the range of intelligence (I.Q). This out of following is appropriate explanation of the relationship between these at different levels of I.Q.
(A) Below that critical level of I.Q. the relationship is negative and above that it is positive.
(B) Below that critical level of I.Q. it is zero and above that it is positive.
(C) Below that critical level of I.Q. the relationship is positive and above that it is negative.
(D) Below that critical level of I.Q. the relationships is positive and above that level zero relationship.
Answer: (D)
38. Which of the following pairs is not the negative symptom of Schizophrenia?
(A) Emotional flattening and Asociality
(B) Anhedonia and Amotivation
(C) Poverty of speech and Apathy
(D) Hallucinations and Bizarre behaviour
Answer: (D)
39. Match the following items of List – I and List – II and indicate your answer with the help of given code:
List – I List – II
p. Pituitary gland 1. Estrogens
q. Gonads 2. Prolactin
r. Adrenal gland 3. Thyroxin
s. Thyroid gland 4. Corticosterone
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 4 3 2 1
(D) 3 1 2 4
Answer: (B)
40. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Accomplishments) (Cognitive Developmental Stage)
p. Egocentric thought 1. Sensorimotor
q. Object permanence 2. Formal operational
r. Abstract reasoning 3. Pre operational
s. Conservation reversibility 4. Concrete operational
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 1 4 3 2
Answer: (B)
41. Read the below given statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R), indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Solution to any problem generally requires making reason from long-term goal to short-term goals, and so on.
Reason (R): Generating short-term goals are necessary for finding the most-suitable solution to the problem.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are false.
(B) Statement (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
Answer: (D)
42. Given below are two statements: Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Indicate your answer using codes given below:
Assertion (A): People tend to be more aggressive when they consume less alcohol.
Reason (R): Alcohol impairs higher order cognitive functioning.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
43. Match List – I with List – II and answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Terms) (Explanations)
p. Social influence 1. The term refer to the audience effect and coaction effects
q. Social cognitive theory 2. Part of the self-concept derives from group membership
r. Social facilitation 3. Any process whereby a person’s attitudes, opinions, beliefs or behaviour are altered.
s. Social identity 4. An approach to social learning incorporating findings from learning.
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 3 4 1 2
(D) 4 1 3 2
Answer: (C)
44. According to ________ theory, thoughts and feeling change because people are motivated to justify emotions that would otherwise seem hypothetical. This theory was proposed by _______.
(A) Dissonance; Festinger
(B) Cognitive dissonance; Festinger
(C) Cognitive dissonance; Baron
(D) Normative social influence; Baron
Answer: (B)
45. The well known study on obedience to authority was done by
(A) Stanley Milgram
(B) Solomon Asch
(C) Latane and Darley
(D) Zimbardo
Answer: (A)
46. Somatic Nervous System does not activate one of the following:
(A) Glands
(B) Eyes
(C) Ears
(D) Skeletal Muscles
Answer: (A)
47. Three mountains task was used by Piaget to study ______ in children.
(A) Centration
(B) Conservation
(C) Egocentrism
(D) Reversibility
Answer: (C)
48. Receiver Operating Characteristic Curve describes _______.
(A) The smallest difference between two stimuli necessary to detect them as different.
(B) The relationship between the proportion of hits and false alarms for constant stimulus intensity.
(C) Detection of a change in a stimulus is related to the magnitude of the stimulus.
(D) As the number of sensation units grows arithmetically the stimulus intensity increases geometrically.
Answer: (B)
49. As compared to primary school students, middle school students use more of
1. Rehearsal
2. Elaboration
3. Metacognition
Codes:
(A) 1 and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: (D)
50. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer with the help of code given below:
List – I List – II
(Phenomenon) (Psychologist)
p. Explanation of creativity in terms of product 1. Getzels and Jackson
q. Explanation of creativity in terms of process 2. Gordon
r. Explanation of creativity in terms of personality characteristics 3. Torrance
s. Explanation of creativity in terms of motivational factors 4. Rogers
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 4 2 3 1
(D) 4 3 1 2
Answer: (D)
51. Match List – I and List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Phenomenon) (Psychological term)
p. Tendency to stick to one’s own preconceptions 1. Mental Set
q. Inability to judge a problem from alternative perspective 2. Confirmation bias
r. Tendency to judge a problem and find its solution from previous results 3. Functional fixedness
s. Tendency to think about things only in respect of their usual functions 4. Fixation
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 2 4 3 1
(C) 2 4 1 3
(D) 2 1 3 4
Answer: (C)
52. Arrange the following treatment methodology in order in which they got known:
1. Client Centered Therapy
2. Psychoanalytic Therapy
3. Reciprocal Inhibition Technique
4. Reinforcement Contingency
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 2, 1, 3, 4
(C) 2, 1, 4, 3
(D) 3, 4, 1, 2
Answer: (C)
53. Arrange the following tests in decreasing order of their projective ability:
1. Rorschach’s Ink Blot Test
2. Thematic Apperception Test
3. Rosenzweig’s Picture Frustration Scale
4. Sack’s Sentence Completion Test
Codes:
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4
(B) 4, 3, 2, 1
(C) 3, 2, 1, 4
(D) 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: (B)
54. Match the following items of List – I & List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
p. Authoritarian & unloving parents 1. Conflicted and irritable children
q. Permissive and loving parents 2. Moody and conduct disordered children
r. Neglectful and uninvolved parents 3. Friendly and competitive children
s. Authoritative and loving parents 4. Impulsive and aggressive children
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 3 4 2 1
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 2 1 4 3
Answer: (C)
55. Given below are two statements, Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): The most important neurotransmitter implicated in schizophrenia is Dopamine.
Reason (R): Clinical evidence suggests that drugs which reduce the level of dopamine in the brain also give rise to psychotic states like schizophrenia.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (C)
56. Given below are two statements, the first labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the given codes below:
Assertion (A): Long term potentialism is related to neural mechanism of learning and memory.
Reason (R): There is facilitation of synaptic transmission following high frequency electrical stimulation.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.
Answer: (B)
57. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). Indicate your answer using the codes given below:
Assertion (A): Information processing is a mode of attention that concerns the non-temporal information processing demands of a task.
Reason (R): Subliminal perception is a form of perception in which stimuli are not detected or consciously perceived.
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are correct, but (R) is not the explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) Both (A) and (R) are false.
Answer: (B)
58. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer with the help of the given codes:
List – I List – II
(Charismatic Leader) (Characteristics)
p. Personal risk 1. Engages in behaviours that are perceived as novel and counter to norms.
q. Environmental sensitivity 2. Willing to take on high personal risk, incur high costs and engage in self-sacrifice to achieve the vision
r. Sensitivity to follower needs 3. Able to make realistic assessments of the environmental constraints and resources needed to bring about change.
s. Unconventional Behaviour 4. Perceptive of others’ abilities and responsive to their needs and feelings
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 2 3 4 1
(B) 1 4 3 2
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 3 2 1 4
Answer: (A)
59. Vestibule Training utilizes equipment which is closely ______ to the actual ones, used _____.
(A) Resemble; on the job
(B) Similar; on the job
(C) Resemble; off the job
(D) Similar; off the job
Answer: (A)
60. The perspectives of motivation that identify specific needs
(A) Content Theories
(B) Process Theory of Motivation
(C) Equity Theory and OB Mode Theory
(D) Expectancy Theories
Answer: (A)
61. Out of the following statements find out the one which is wrong according to social-psychological research:
(A) Situational forces have tremendous power to shape human behaviour rather than personality or character.
(B) Both humans and animals respond more quickly when in the presence of other members of their species.
(C) A bystander in an emergency situation is likely to intervene or help in
a group than if alone.
(D) The uninhibited aggressive behaviour
sometimes shown by mobs and crowds may be the result of
deindividuation.
Answer: (C)
62. Who among the following is credited with developing Logo therapy?
(A) Fritz Perls
(B) Eric Burne
(C) Victor Frankel
(D) Rollo May
Answer: (C)
63. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer using codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Perceptual Theory) (Explanation)
p. Signal Detection Theory 1. The detection of change in a stimulus is relative to the magnitude of the stimulus
q. Stevens’ Power Law 2. The ability to detect a weak stimulus varies from moment to moment as per response bias
r. Fechner’s Law 3. The magnitude of a sensation is a logarithmic function of the stimulus
s. Weber’s Fraction 4. Sensory magnitude grows in proportion to the physical intensity of the stimulus raised to a power
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 3 4 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 2 4 3 1
Answer: (D)
64. Match List – I with List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(State of attachment) (Description)
p. Privation 1. The state of a child who has never formed a close attachment with anyone.
q. Anaclitic depression 2. A condition or disorder found among juvenile delinquents involving a lack of guilt and remorse.
r. Deprivation 3. A condition experienced by some children who are poorly cared for having loss of appetite and feeling of helplessness.
s. Affectionless psychopathology 4. The state of a child who has formed a close relationship to someone, but is later separated from that person
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 1 3 4 2
(B) 4 2 1 3
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 2 4 3
Answer: (A)
65. Select the pair of poles of dimensions for ‘permissive parenting style’ as proposed by Maccoby and Martin among the given below:
1. Demanding
2. Responsive
3. Unresponsive
4. Undemanding
Codes:
(A) 1 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Answer: (D)
66. Match List – I and List – II and indicate your answer using the codes given below:
List – I List – II
(Psychological term) (Phenomena)
p. Acquisition 1. The reappearance, after a rest period, of an extinguished conditioned response.
q. Extinction 2. The tendency, once a response has been conditioned, for stimuli similar to the conditioned stimulus to evoke similar responses.
r. Spontaneous recovery 3. The diminishing of conditioned response; occurs in classical conditioning when an unconditioned stimulus (UCS) does not follow as a conditioned stimulus (CS): occurs in operant conditioning when a response is no longer reinforced.
s. Generalization 4. The initial stage of learning during which a response is established and gradually strengthened. In classical conditioning it is the phase in which a stimulus comes to evoke a conditioned response. In operant conditioning, a reinforced response is strengthened.
Codes:
p q r s
(A) 4 3 1 2
(B) 4 3 2 1
(C) 1 2 3 4
(D) 1 2 4 3
Answer: (A)
67. What would be the degrees of freedom for error variance in a five group randomized ANOVA, with twelve subjects per group?
(A) 54
(B) 55
(C) 59
(D) 60
Answer: (B)
68. ARIMA (Autoregressive Integrated Moving Averages) model is especially useful in analysing the data obtained through
(A) Factorial designswww.netugc.com
(B) Randomized block designs
(C) Time series designs
(D) Quasi-experimental designs with non-equivalent control groups
Answer: (C)
69. Which of the following is correct of the Rorschach Ink Blot Cards?
(A) Five chromatic and five achromatic
(B) Two chromatic and eight achromatic
(C) Three chromatic and seven achromatic
(D) Three chromatic, five achromatic and two unstructured
Answer: (A)
70. Selection is the process of differentiating between ______ in order to identify those with a greater likelihood of _______ in a job.
(A) Applicants; good performance
(B) Candidates; good performance
(C) Applicants; success
(D) Candidates; success
Answer: (C)
Instructions for Questions 71 to 75: Read the following passage and answer the five questions that follow:
The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale (WAIS) was administered to a sample of 300 subjects. The inter-correlations among all the subscales were obtained. Unities were retained in the diagonal spaces of the correlation matrix and it was factor analysed. Cattell’s scree indicated two-factor solution. The two factors were subjected to varimax rotation. The two rotated factors were named as Verbal Intelligence and Performance Intelligence. The two factors, together, explained 62 percent of variance.
71. Which one of the following method of factor extraction is likely to have been employed in the present work?
(A) Principal component analysis
(B) Principal axes factoring
(C) Maximum likelihood
(D) Unweighted least squares
Answer: (A)
72. The inter-factor correlation between the two rotated factors obtained in this analysis will be
(A) Greater than zero
(B) Smaller than zero
(C) Zero
(D) Zero or greater than zero
Answer: (C)
73. Cattell’s scree is a
(A) Plot displaying variables using the first two factors as axes.
(B) Plot of the order of unrotated factors on X axis and eigen values on Y axis.
(C) Plot of the order of unrotated factors on X axis and the communalities on the Y axis.
(D) Eigenvalues on X axis and communalities on Y axis.
Answer: (B)
74. The factor-analytic model followed in the above analysis can be best labelled as
(A) Common factor model
(B) Confirmatory factor analysis model
(C) Oblique factor analysis model
(D) Component model
Answer: (D)
75. In this research, the factor analysis has
(A) Established the predictive validity of the WAIS.
(B)Explored the dimensionality of the WAIS subscales.
(C) Provided evidence in favour of Spearman’s two factor model.
(D) Demonstrated that all the WAIS subscales are highly internally consistent.
Answer: (B)
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